What does the Hebrew and Greek tell us?
Published on January 16, 2006 By Adventure-Dude In Religion
There are two types of grace that are translated from the Hebrew and Greek Text.

Grace- Pleasant, precious, beauty, etc.
&
Grace- Mercy, unmerited favor, compassion, etc.

These are two distinctly different definitions found in the Hebrew and Greek text of the Bible.

Hebrew:
Chesed- unmerited favor (Strong’s #2616/17)
Chen- precious. (Strong’s #2580/81)

Greek:
Eleos- unmerited favor (Strong’s #1651/53)
Charis- precious (Strong’s #5485/63)

Here are the numerical accounts found in the OT and NT for each word.

In the OT. - In the NT

Chesed is used 251 times. - Eleos is used 50 times.
Chen is used 70 times. - Charis is used 233 times.

The grace of unmerited favor (the definition most commonly used) is pretty consistent throughout ALL of the scriptures (given that the OT is significantly larger than the NT). But the grace of beauty or luster is used exceedingly more in the NT.

Using just the KJV ‘Chen’ (of the 70 in OT) and ‘Charis’ (of the 233 in NT) are translated as ‘grace’ 39 and 131 times respectively into English.

One point I want to make is that when we read scriptures in English we need to be aware that there maybe more than one definition for this word. To say that there is more grace in the NT I would agree with you on the context of beauty and luster but to say this statement regarding to unmerited favor I do not find this to be scripturally supported.

This is another case and point for digging into the Greek and Hebrew to understand the scriptures and not make assumptions from English with out the proper definition at hand. I think this is why we have so many different theologies/doctrines in existence today. This leaves huge gaps of inconsistency and easily plugging in one’s own motive.

The message of G-D’s grace of forgiveness is consistent in the NT as it is in the OT. Am I saying that our grace (unmerited favor) doesn’t come from Jesus our Savior and L-RD? Heaven forbid! Remember he is the W-RD made flesh (John 1:14). The Greek word for ‘W-RD’ here means doctrine and references the Torah or Pentateuch (the law of Moses). My point for now is that G-D's grace is constant and sufficient for us.

Let me finish with some scriptural references as examples:

Jeremiah 9:24 ~’ …That I am the LORD, exercising lovingkindness (chesed), judgment, and righteousness in the earth.
For in these I delight,” says the LORD. (NKJV)’

Genesis 6:8 ~’ But Noah found grace (chen) in the eyes of the LORD. (NKJV)’

Luke 2:52~’ And Jesus increased in wisdom and stature, and in favor (charis) with God and men. (NKJV)’

Matthew 5:7~’ Blessed are the merciful (Eleos),
For they shall obtain mercy (Eleos). (NKJV)’


Comments
on Jan 19, 2006
Hey Dude,

How ya been? We are studying Genesis here in depth and I was thinking of your Noah selection before I noticed you put it in there. Yes God's grace is seen throughout the OT as well as the NT.

My guess your point for next is that grace was in the OT and is in the NT and the Law was in the OT and also in the NT? Am I on the right track.....?

on Jan 23, 2006
My point isn't just about the law. It's to debunk replacement theology that everything changed 180 degrees. That G-D's fundamental principles and when he said, "forever or throughout your generations" remains the same. Jesus added to what already existed not 'taking away' from the OT Covenants. It isn't just my point it is what I find in the scriptures. I see them more as G-D's point not mine. I don't want to rant and rave about my opinion that is why I presented this in the most factual way I could. I didn't expect anyone to comment because it isn't an opinion.

Adventure Dude
on Jan 24, 2006
I agree with you. I don't believe in replacement theology either and I also agree with what you said about Jesus adding to what is already.

I believe God has a great plan for the Jews and it seems to be unfolding every night on the news.

Have a question for you. Why don't you spell out God's name but you do Jesus? I'm sure you believe Jesus is God right?

Just curious.
on Jan 26, 2006
Sorry for the delay in reply. It's been busy here.

Will try to answer your Q and then I have a Q for you.

When I refer to G-D I am refering to the Yod-Hey-Vav-Hey (YHVH the name that cannot be pronounced). Yes, I could put an o in with it but that doesn't set it apart now does it? The main reason is I feel that many use the name of god so loosely. For me it is a way to set it apart and make it different. In my heart it gives complete recognition. I know in Hebrew he is often referred to as Hashem (The Name) or Adonai (not for certain what that translates to). But I do it out of reverency. Why don't I do it for Jesus? Jesus is not the godhead, only a part of the godhead (meaning Father, Son, Holy Spirit, etc.). He is the word (Torah) and the Torah made flesh (John 1:14). I see him as the right arm (1 Peter 3:22, Luke 22:69, Psalms 48:10, Isaiah 41:10)of G-D.

Hope that helps some.

What is it exactly that we are grafted into?